Can someone be harmed due to lack of payment?

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Latest post Mon, Oct 26 2015 11:50 AM by ca19lawyer2. 19 replies.
  • Sun, Oct 25 2015 9:55 PM In reply to

    • karotto
      Consumer
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    • Joined on Tue, Sep 2 2014
    • CA
    • Posts 13

    Re: Can someone be harmed due to lack of payment?

    thanks for the replies. As far as how the company would get their money is by putting liens agains a house if collection fails. 

    Problem is that the water department did not follow what they had to do which I am realizing now. So we will ask back for our late fees and fines. They simply did not follow protocol. 

    Again. Thanks for the postings. They helped us see clearer. 

     

     

     

  • Sun, Oct 25 2015 9:59 PM In reply to

    • karotto
      Consumer
    • Not Ranked
    • Joined on Tue, Sep 2 2014
    • CA
    • Posts 13

    Re: Can someone be harmed due to lack of payment?

    The company would get paid through liens against the house if collection fails. 

    The did NOT follow protocol so we will ask back for our fines. Your postings made that clear. Thank you

  • Sun, Oct 25 2015 10:00 PM In reply to

    • karotto
      Consumer
    • Not Ranked
    • Joined on Tue, Sep 2 2014
    • CA
    • Posts 13

    Re: Can someone be harmed due to lack of payment?

    The company would get paid through liens against the house if collection fails. 

    The did NOT follow protocol so we will ask back for our fines. Your postings made that clear. Thank you

  • Mon, Oct 26 2015 1:04 AM In reply to

    Re: Can someone be harmed due to lack of payment?

    karotto:
    The company would get paid through liens against the house if collection fails. 

    It MIGHT get paid if it had a lien against the property. But to get the lien, it would generally have to sue to get a judgment first, which is both time consuming and costly. And then the company would have to hope that there is equity in the property to attach once it gets the judgment. Finally, not all customers own the property, in which case a judgment against the customer would not result in a lien against the property.

    karotto:
    The did NOT follow protocol so we will ask back for our fines. Your postings made that clear. Thank you

    What fines? Is the water company here a private water utility or a municipal (local government owned and operated) water company? That distinction is important beause the utility commission rules I mentioned apply only to private water companies. Municipal water companies are a different situation.

  • Mon, Oct 26 2015 11:50 AM In reply to

    Disagree [)*(] Re: Can someone be harmed due to lack of payment?

    Cicijo:
    It's quite clear. "They" clearly refers to the hypothetical "company". But, based on your response, you seem to already know that. Whether the grammar is correct or not is irrelevant. You know very well what the poster is intending to say.

    This is nothing but your interpretation, and you are, of course entitled to interpret it however you see fit.  However, whether the grammar is correct or not most certainly is relevant.  You suggest that I should interpret a basic word like "they" to mean something other than what the basic rules of pronoun usage tell me it means.  Why should I do that?  Implicitly, you are suggesting that I should assume either that the OP made a mistake or that he/she doesn't know basic rules of English grammar that we all learn in elementary school.  While assume that this was a mere mistake wouldn't have any negative connotations, assuming the latter part of this disjunctive would be downright insulting (and, since the OP has done this repeatedly throughout his/her posts, it is quite reasonable to assume it's not a mistake).  So, basically, what you're telling me is that I should insult the OP.  I shall decline your invitation in this regard.

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