Does my ex have a basis for asking for contribution to her attorney fees (interrim/prospective) if we were never married?
I would assume so, but I don't practice in IN, and, as far as I know, no IN lawyers post here regularly.
A lawyer had suggested this is different for married vs. unmarried couples.
Apparently not YOUR lawyer. Did the lawyer cite any statute or case law to back this up?
Also I am PRO SE . Is there is no "level the playing field" argument then?
I don't understand the question.
Is not having an attorney a choice and not a right?
As phrased, the answer is both. "[N]ot having an attorney" is a choice. It's also a right (i.e., you have a right not to have an attorney). That said, it is not a valid defense to an opponent's request for reimbursement of legal fees that the opponent had the option of not hiring an attorney.