My father passed away recently without a will. I had asked some questions about a week ago. Now I actually have the deed to the house. I want to know if I am entitled to any ownership in the house at all.
The overall response was it depends on how it is written, but would probably go to his spouse 100%. This is the house in South Carolina that is sitting there.
House is paid off in full. Here is how the deed reads:
Know all men by these presents, that NAME HERE OF THE PREVIOUS OWNER in consideratoin of AMOUNT PAID
granted, bargained, sold, and released, and by these presents do grant, bargain, sell, and release unto S. Joe Smith and P. Darlene Smith, their heirs and assigns, forever:
legal description of property, etc.
I changed the names above to protect their identity. My father is Joe Smith. Darlene is my step-mother. Dad had two children - my brother David and myself. Daddy and Darlene had no children of their own. Darlene never had children of her own.
So do I own part of this property? If so, how much do I own? I am an heir.
Thank you so much for helping me out.